Shreve I-5: Recurrence and biased random walks

Here we give a proof that random walk is recurrent for 𝑝 =1/2 and not for other values of 𝑝.

From Shreve’s older book “Stochastic calculus and financial applications” p. 6 we have:
Let 𝑝 be the probability of a step to the right, 𝑋𝑖 =+1, and 𝑞 =1 𝑝.
Let 𝑓(𝑘) be the probability of reaching 𝐴 before 𝐵 given that 𝑆0 =𝑘. Then
𝑓(𝑘)=𝑝𝑓(𝑘+1)+𝑞𝑓(𝑘1)
In terms of Δ𝑓(𝑘) :=𝑓(𝑘 +1) 𝑓(𝑘) this says
Δ𝑓(𝑘)=(𝑞/𝑝)Δ𝑓(𝑘1)
so
Δ𝑓(𝑘+𝑗)=(𝑞/𝑝)𝑗Δ𝑓(𝑘)
and so
𝑓(𝑘)=𝑓(𝐵)+𝑘1𝑖=𝐵Δ𝑓(𝑖)=0+𝑘1𝑖=𝐵Δ𝑓(𝑖)=𝑘+𝐵1𝑗=0Δ𝑓(𝑗𝐵)
=Δ𝑓(𝐵)𝑘+𝐵1𝑗=0(𝑞/𝑝)𝑗
=𝑓(𝐵+1)𝑘+𝐵1𝑗=0(𝑞/𝑝)𝑗
=𝑓(𝐵+1)(𝑞/𝑝)𝑘+𝐵1(𝑞/𝑝)1
Since 𝑓(𝐴) =1 we can evaluate 𝑓(𝐵 +1) as (𝑞/𝑝)1(𝑞/𝑝)𝐴+𝐵1.
Then
𝑓(0)=(𝑞/𝑝)1(𝑞/𝑝)𝐴+𝐵1(𝑞/𝑝)𝐵1(𝑞/𝑝)1
Thus

𝑃(𝑆𝑛 hits 𝐴 before 𝐵𝑆0=0)=(𝑞/𝑝)𝐵1(𝑞/𝑝)𝐴+𝐵1
Setting 𝐴 =𝐵 we have
𝑃(𝑆𝑛 hits 𝐴 before 𝐴𝑆0=0)=(𝑞/𝑝)𝐴1(𝑞/𝑝)2𝐴1=1(𝑞/𝑝)𝐴+1
Let us consider the probability of never hitting 𝐴. This is the same as hitting 𝐴 before 𝐴, then 3𝐴 before 𝐴 (so in effect 2𝐴 before 2𝐴), then 7𝐴 before 𝐴 (so in effect 4𝐴 before 4𝐴), and so on, so we get
𝑘=1,2,4,1(𝑞/𝑝)𝑘𝐴+1=𝑛=01(𝑞/𝑝)𝐴2𝑛+1
Let us set 𝐴 =2𝑎 where 𝑎 0, 𝑎 an integer (where 𝑎 =0 is perhaps most interesting), so we are looking at
𝑛=01(𝑞/𝑝)2𝑛+𝑎+1
If 𝑝 1/2 then 𝑞/𝑝 1 and so this is
𝑛=0112𝑛+𝑎+1=0
since the factors are bounded below 1. But if 𝑝 >1/2 then 𝛼 :=𝑞/𝑝 <1 and we have the equivalent conditions 𝑛=01𝛼2𝑛+𝑎+1>0 log𝑛=01𝛼2𝑛+1> log1𝛼2𝑛+1> log(𝛼2𝑛+1)< But ln(𝑥) 𝑥 1 for all 𝑥 >0, so
log(𝛼2𝑛+1)<𝛼2𝑛<𝛼𝑛<
Moreover as 𝑎 the nonzero product actually approaches 1. Thus the probability that each negative number will eventually be reached is zero when 𝑝 >1/2. Similarly, if 𝑝 <1/2 then the probability that each positive number will eventually be reached is zero.